NASBS

North American Skull Base Society

NASBS Skull Base Dissection Course Pre-Test

We look forward to seeing you at the upcoming the NASBS 2020 Skull Base Dissection Course on Wednesday, February 5 and Thursday, February 6.

As required by our CME provider, please complete the pre-course test below by 5pm PST on Tuesday, February 4th.   You will also be asked to complete a post test following the course in order to measure the effectiveness of the activity.  Information on the post test will be emailed out after the start of the course.

For any questions, please contact the NASBS office at [email protected].

NASBS Skull Base Dissection Course Pre-Test

Name(Required)
1. What is the most common site of attachment of the diaphragm sella?(Required)
2. During an expanded Endonasal transplanum approach, the posterior anatomical limit of drilling to prevent injury to the preforaminal optic nerve is:(Required)
3. Which anatomical structure is most likely at risk if an Onodi cell is present?(Required)
4. Mark the correct statement about the palatovaginal fissure:(Required)
5. In order to remove the clinoid process, could you tell us what are the attachments of the anterior clinoid process to the skull base?(Required)
6. What arterial branches most frequently arise from the meningohypophyseal trunk at the cavernous sinus?(Required)
7. This 24 year old has a biopsy proven adenocarcinoma. What would be the best oncological treatment?(Required)
8. What nerve in the middle fossa courses almost parallel to the greater petrosal nerve and can be mistaken for that nerve while elevating the dura covering the middle fossa?(Required)
9. What nerve does it course medial to the trigeminal ganglion and can be damaged when drilling the Petrous apex medial to the trigeminal ganglion?(Required)
10. During the initial phase of the extradural elevation of the temporal lobe, the surgeon should systemically identify the arcuate eminence, greater superficial petrosal nerve, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and?(Required)
11. This approach provides an exposure to the area anterior to the brain stem and was initially described for meningiomas. The inferior limit of the exposure is at the level of(Required)
12. If you access to the petrous apex via the transnasal approach with endoscope, which structure is not suitable for landmarks?(Required)
13. After the endoscopic endonasal approach to the petrous apex, which complication is unlikely to occur?(Required)
14. Critical skull base structures that may be encountered during a transphenoidal marsupialization of a cholesterol granuloma include all of the following except:(Required)
15. A septated, variably enhancing lesion consistent with a small chondrosarcoma of the petroclival area, inferomedial to the petrous carotid and anteromedial to the CN VII/VIII complex, is approached endoscopically through a Transpterygoid approach to the petrous apex. All of the following represent critical steps in gaining a wide endoscopic exposure of this area except:(Required)
16. All of the following nerves are related to the Transpterygoid approach, with the exception of:(Required)
17. Which one of the following is a real direct side effect of the Transpterygoid approach?(Required)
18. The foramen magnum is a part of which bone?(Required)
19. During a far lateral approach for a foramen magnum lesion, which of the following structures can you safely divide to widen the surgical corridor?(Required)
20. Which segment of the vertebral artery is located in the suboccipital triangle?(Required)
21. What two points help determine the caudal extent of access to the craniocervical junction via an endonasal approach?(Required)
22. In the absence of dural defect and in the absence of CSF leak, what is the best reconstruction method after endoscopic endonasal approach for craniocervical junction pathology?(Required)
23. Advantages to an endoscopic endonasal odontoidectomy compared to a transoral approach include all of the following except:(Required)
24. All of the following are pathologies that can be treated with an endoscopic endonasal approach to the odontoid except:(Required)
25. Which of these is not a border of posteromedial (Kawase’s) triangle?(Required)
26. Petroclival meningiomas, by definition, are tumors that:(Required)
27. Which structure is anterolateral to the horizontal petrous ICA (internal carotid artery)?(Required)
28. The abducens nerve enters Dorello’s canal medial to the paraclival ICA immediately above which bony structure?(Required)
29. Pneumatization of which structure creates the lateral OCR (opticocarotid recess)?(Required)
30. Which one of the following is a real direct side effect of the Transpterygoid approach?(Required)
31. When planning a transpterygoid approach, which of the following flaps are best pedicled on the contralateral side?(Required)
32. What is the relationship of the abducens nerve to the trigeminal branches?(Required)
33. Which tumor is typically centered around the petroclival synchondrosis?(Required)
34. This tumor originates from the pterygopalatine fissure and vidian canal:(Required)
35. Endoscopic Endonasal Transpterygoid Approaches can be used for trigeminal schwannomas originating from all of the following except:(Required)
36. The “quadrangular space” which provides access to the Meckel’s cave via an endoscopic endonasal approach is bounded by all of the following except:(Required)
37. Petroclival meningiomas, by definition, are tumors that:(Required)
38. The frontalis branch of the facial nerve has which relationship to the zygoma?(Required)
39. The optic strut separates which two neural structures?(Required)
40. Which nerve can be skeletonized and mobilized anteriorly to increase access to the petrous apex during an extended middle fossa approach?(Required)
41. Which orbital structure is encountered when dissecting periorbita from the frontozygomatic suture during an orbitozygomatic osteotomy?(Required)
42. Which of the following can be used as a landmark for the horizontal petrous ICA (internal carotid artery) during an extended middle fossa approach?(Required)
43. This structure is cut to identify the plane between the temporal dura and lateral cavernous sinus dura to allow peeling of the temporal dura.(Required)
44. This structure is cut to allow mobilization of the optic nerve during a frontotemporal craniotomy:(Required)
45. All of the following are landmarks of Kawase’s triangle except:(Required)
46. The anteromedial/clinoidal triangle (Dolenc) is bounded by all of the following except:(Required)
47. The clivus is divided into thirds during an endonasal approach based on which landmarks?(Required)
48. The supracondylar groove or ridge is at the same level as which neural structure during an endoscopic endonasal approach?(Required)
49. Which of the following techniques for pituitary transposition allows maximal posterior clinoid exposure while minimizing pituitary gland disruption?(Required)
50. Where can the nasoseptal flap be placed during a transclival approach?(Required)
51. The odontoid should be drilled/removed in which order?(Required)
52. All of the following are exposed during an endoscopic endonasal mid-clival resection/exposure EXCEPT:(Required)
53. What is the maximal percentage of the condyle that can be removed via an endoscopic endonasal approach without causing craniocervical instability?(Required)
54. All of the following can be removed without causing significant instability except:(Required)
55. Petroclival meningiomas, by definition, are tumors that:(Required)
56. All of the following makeup the suboccipital triangle except:(Required)
57. What is the maximal percentage of the condyle that can be removed via a far lateral approach without causing craniocervical instability?(Required)
58. Which segment of the vertebral artery is localized during the initial far lateral approach?(Required)
59. Which large emissary vein should be localized and carefully controlled with packing during a far lateral approach?(Required)
60. Drilling of this structure allows for maximal lateral access for dural opening superior to the vertebral artery:(Required)
61. Which structure overlies and provides a landmark for the sigmoid sinus?(Required)
62. Far lateral approaches are used for all of the following except:(Required)
63. What is the typical relationships of the intradural hypoglossal nerve with the vertebral artery?(Required)
64. Which nerve lies in the cerebellomedullary cistern?(Required)
65. The clivus can be schematically divided into three regions. What are the anatomic boundaries of the middle clivus in the transverse plane?(Required)
66. Which structure does NOT pass through foramen ovale?(Required)
67. A 35-year-old female presents with right-sided cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. A thin-cut CT scan and MRI were performed which demonstrated a meningocele within the right lateral recess of the sphenoid sinus. What is the most appropriate endoscopic, endonasal approach for repair of this skull base defect?(Required)
68. Which of the following is NOT true of the location of the sphenoid sinus ostium?(Required)
69. What is the posterior border of the anterior cranial fossa?(Required)
70. Which bony structure separates the optic canal from the superior orbital fissure?(Required)
71. From which bone does the cribriform plate arise?(Required)
72. The crista ethmoidalis is an important structure that helps to localize the sphenopalatine artery. From which bone does it arise?(Required)
73. The uncinate most commonly attaches to the(Required)
74. The clivus is formed by portions of which bones?(Required)
75. Adenomas are more commonly (secreting vs nonsecreting) and the most common secreted hormone is_______?(Required)
76. The crista ethmoidalis is helpful for identifying the___?(Required)
77. Meckel’s cave allows tumor spread between what two areas?(Required)
78. Approximately what percentage of esthesioneuroblastoma patients have cervical metastases?(Required)